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unlawful deduction of wages question

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  • unlawful deduction of wages question

    i ask you all to stay with me on this as i am having a right ding dong with HR OVER THIS ISSUE. I HAVE ASKED FOR SPECIFIC LINKS TO STATUTE LEGISLATION ETC

    a staff member has resigned and given a weeks notice and finished friday.
    she has used up her 28 day holiday entitlement and the holiday entitlement runs from april 1st to april the 1st

    HR have deducted from her final wages the equivalent holiday entitlement.

    fine i hear you say, she has had her holiday entitlement, just because she leaves before the holiday period runs out then we will take back what she owes.

    in a sense i have absolutely no problem with that but i am asking this now ON A CONTRACTUAL ISSUE ONLY, please forget the rights and wrongs.

    when this person joined the company say 15 years ago, the terms of her contract of employment were numbered 1-23

    WITH NO MENTION ABOUT TAKING BACK OVERPAYMENT OF HOLIDAY ALLOWANCE

    we will now move on to 5 years ago, the employer then brings in clause

    "24.4 In the event that during your employment with xxxxxxxx you have taken holiday in excess of your pro-rated entitlement, either at the date of termination of employment or at any time during your employment, xxxxxxx may deduct from your wages the value of the days taken in excess of your entitlement."

    as i understand it to bring a fundamental change or imply terms into your contract of employment, the employer must send out the employee a new contract within 30 days to sign

    You must tell the employee in writing about any changes to the written statement no later than one month after you have made the change. A change to the statement will still require the employee's agreement

    so my question

    if the employer has not sent this person a new contract of employment or the employee has not accepted that change, can the employer

    1/ rely on this clause 24.4 to deduct these figures from the employees wages even

    2/ though the employee did not sign and except this term when the contract was originally signed

    3/ is this breach of contract

    thanks people

    relevent links to statute law would help
    Last edited by miliitant; 12th February 2012, 12:26:PM.
    Tags: None

  • #2
    Re: unlawful deduction of wages question

    Originally posted by miliitant View Post
    i ask you all to stay with me on this as i am having a right ding dong with HR OVER THIS ISSUE. I HAVE ASKED FOR SPECIFIC LINKS TO STATUTE LEGISLATION ETC

    a staff member has resigned and given a weeks notice and finished friday.
    she has used up her 28 day holiday entitlement and the holiday entitlement runs from april 1st to april the 1st

    HR have deducted from her final wages the equivalent holiday entitlement.

    fine i hear you say, she has had her holiday entitlement, just because she leaves before the holiday period runs out then we will take back what she owes.

    in a sense i have absolutely no problem with that but i am asking this now ON A CONTRACTUAL ISSUE ONLY, please forget the rights and wrongs.

    when this person joined the company say 15 years ago, the terms of her contract of employment were numbered 1-23

    WITH NO MENTION ABOUT TAKING BACK OVERPAYMENT OF HOLIDAY ALLOWANCE

    we will now move on to 5 years ago, the employer then brings in clause

    "24.4 In the event that during your employment with xxxxxxxx you have taken holiday in excess of your pro-rated entitlement, either at the date of termination of employment or at any time during your employment, xxxxxxx may deduct from your wages the value of the days taken in excess of your entitlement."

    as i understand it to bring a fundamental change or imply terms into your contract of employment, the employer must send out the employee a new contract within 30 days to sign

    You must tell the employee in writing about any changes to the written statement no later than one month after you have made the change. A change to the statement will still require the employee's agreement

    so my question

    if the employer has not sent this person a new contract of employment or the employee has not accepted that change, can the employer

    1/ rely on this clause 24.4 to deduct these figures from the employees wages even

    2/ though the employee did not sign and except this term when the contract was originally signed

    3/ is this breach of contract

    thanks people

    relevent links to statute law would help
    Hi Militant,

    Teaboy is probably the best person to help you with this one. As far as I know, and I am quoting what ACAS has told me, if a person does not sign a new contract, they are deemed to have accepted the new contract by default. If they refuse to sign, the employer has to renegotiate the contract terms, or terminate the employee's employment and risk litigation for unfair dismissal and, possibly, breach of contract, also. Without seeing the contract terms themselves, it's difficult to say.

    Bluebottle
    Life is a journey on which we all travel, sometimes together, but never alone.

    Comment


    • #3
      Re: unlawful deduction of wages question

      that may be so but the employee must first be notified of any such change

      it just cannot be brought in by clandestine measures without notification to the employee and then the employer use that term to there advantage 5 years down the line

      thanks

      Comment

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